Kat Kaminski, MD
A 17-year-old female presents to your ED with abdominal pain. Her vital signs are as follows: BP 90/60, HR 120, RR 16, and SpO2 99%. LMP is unknown. A urine pregnancy test is pending. She is awake and alert but looks uncomfortable so you decide to perform a bedside ultrasound:
A 1 week old male born at full term presents to the ED with difficulty breathing and a weak cry. Mom also notes that he appears “sweaty” during feeds today and has had fewer wet diapers. History is significant for scant prenatal care however delivery was uncomplicated. On exam he is cyanotic with oxygen saturation 70% on 5L NC O2. Vital signs are as follows: T 36C, HR 180, RR 65, BP 60/30. Which should you order first?
A 40-year-old woman with a history of hysterectomy 2 months ago presents with 3 days of fever and productive cough. Her vitals are as follows: T 101.2F HR 95 RR 18 BP 125/74 SpO2 99%. Her initial blood work is unremarkable and she is well appearing. CXR reveals a left lower lobe infiltrate. What is the best plan for this patient?