Saturday

Board Review: Valvular Emergencies

A 40 year old male with history of Marfan's Syndrome comes in with sudden onset shortness of breath preceded by tearing chest pain. He is tachycardic to 120, blood pressure is 80/40, patient is tachypneic with increased work of breathing. CXR is consistent with widened mediastinum and pulmonary edema and stat bedside ECHO is concerning for acute aortic regurgitation secondary to aortic insufficiency. Cardiothoracic surgery is consulted. What two medical modalities are contraindicated in this patient? 

A. Beta Blocker and Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump

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Board Review: Infectious Disease

A 60-year-old male presents with fever, dry cough, headache, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. He saw his primary care physician who prescribed him Amoxicillin for which he has been taking for 4 days but feeling worse. Labs show a Sodium of 130 and mild transaminitis, other labs are within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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Board Review: OB/GYN

A 29-year-old woman presents for heavy vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. She had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery of a full-term baby 1 week ago. She denies fever or pain. There is active bleeding from the os. No cervical motion tenderness or signs of trauma or foul-smelling discharge. What is the most likely diagnosis? 

A. Uterine Atony

B. Retained products of conception

C. Cervical Trauma

D. Endometritis 

 

 

 

 

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Board Review: Aortic Dissection

A 63 year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset chest pain that is tearing to the back. Blood pressure is 200/110 and the patient looks very uncomfortable. You order a CTA of the Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis and diagnose Aortic Dissection. What is the medication of choice in the initial management of aortic dissection in this patient?

A. Nitroprusside

B. Nicardipine

C. Esmolol

D. NItroglycerin

E. Diltiazem 

 

 

 

 

 

Answer is C: Esmolol

 

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