A 40-year-old woman with a history of hysterectomy 2 months ago presents with 3 days of fever and productive cough. Her vitals are as follows: T 101.2F HR 95 RR 18 BP 125/74 SpO2 99%. Her initial blood work is unremarkable and she is well appearing. CXR reveals a left lower lobe infiltrate. What is the best plan for this patient?