A 26 year old female at 40 weeks gestation presents to your emergency department in labor. During the delivery you notice retraction of the fetal head against the maternal perineum and are unable to deliver either shoulder. Which of the following steps below should be performed first?
- Suprapubic pressure with flexion of hips
- Episiotomy
- Rotate mother to prone position
- Cephalic replacement
- Intentional clavicle fracture
Submitted by Louis Argentine MD
A 19 yo M presents to the ED complaining of elbow pain after running into a wall with an outstretched arm.
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Which of the following is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Uterine atony
B) Retained placental fragments
C) Lower genital tract laceration
D) Underlying coagulopathy
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Submitted by Louis Argentine MD
Discharge:
- Healthy + young females + tolerating PO + well appearing
- Admit anyone else
- Pregnancy gets admitted for increased risk for preterm labor.
Should you send blood culture if admit?
Read moreSubmitted by John Cafaro MD
Can you identify what type of Salter Harris fracture this patient has?
Read moreSubmitted by Louis Argentine MD
Dr. Schramm discusses some pearls for management of renal colic.
Read moreSubmitted by John Cafaro MD
A 35 yo M presents to the ED complaining of R hand pain after punching a wall in an upward motion. He denies any numbness or paresthesias. On exam, he has an obvious deformity of the dorsum of the R hand, but is neurovascularly intact.
Read moreSubmitted by Loran Hatch, DO